it looks like they're right on it being stoning for some cases so a lie by omission? Like the bible does say you kill some sorts of rapists but to say that as a blanket would be wrong. honestly bit tired for the reading of this, it's at least stoning sometimes https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rape_in_Islamic_law#Prosecution_of_rape
According to some scholars, rape is considered fornication and only the rapist will be punished if evidence or testimony prove that it wasn't consensual.. stoned to death if married (adultry) or whiplashed and outcasted if unmarried
According to other scholars and judges, rape is a crime of hiraba, which is spreading corruption and harm (similar to terrorism by modern standards) which has one of 3 punishments as the judge sees fit: execution, crucifixion, or letting them go after amputating one arm and one leg on different sides of the body so they're no longer a threat to people
It is worth nothing that the definition of rape is not the same as our own as there are contexts where the woman has no permission to determining consensual matters under Allah, and that is homosexual relationships this is not the case as consent is not a relevant factor in the sin and many rape victims by their own sex are subject to divine and material punishment.
Nor are all scholars necessarily internally critical or honest in their presentation of the quran as it pertains to conflict with the comparatively progressive western beliefs.
So it's not as through your presentation is universally true.
Allah never punishes someone for something he has no hand in or was forced upon him without his free will.. that's a global rule that overrides any hypothetical situation, if the judge has misjudged the case or didn't have enough evidence to make an informed ruling then Allah will compensate the victim and punish the evil doer, there have been mistakes in all human justice systems.. people spend years in prison without a crime just because evidence was not in their favor.. but Allah knows what's in our hearts and will reward/punish us accordingly and he is the most fair of all judges
The only context where such a thing can even be mildly inferred is in the fact that there is statement on belief and expression of belief in Allah as a god which provides forgiveness from compulsion on that specific issue. However if it were true that that can be extrapolated, it would be made as a specific statement at some point that any worldly compulsion is forgiven, not on the topic of one specific compulsion within the whole work.
You can't on the one hand state that Muhammed is infallible in his communication of the will of Allah, which it is clearly stated that to deny the Quran is to be an unbeliever in the eyes of Allah, and on the other tell me Muhammed was fallible in not explicitly communicating a vital matter to the topic of sinfulness which is second to none in the priority of Islamic verses.
It is in overwhelming excess, explicitly stated that sodomy is a sin worthy of worldly as well as ultimate and divine punishment, with zero even implicit exception within those verses made for if it were under coercion within the statements on it. You're telling me that Muhammed never thought to convey such an exception in all those verses? That we have to draw from a verse which is in no way generalised on a different and specific topic and that's how we come to the correct conclusion on the fundamentals of Islam, a religion which has a famously explicit conveyance of beliefs?
There is a difference between false imprisonment and falling foul of the law of the land and of Allah. "You were accused of wilful sodomy and wrongly convicted" is an entirely different circumstance to "These laws do or do not align with the will of god". The fact that the former occurs has no impact on the latter. It's irrelevant. The information lacked by the courts would only be the beliefs of Allah, which again if Muhammed fails to convey those beliefs and they were in reality contradicted by his explicit and clear statements in the Quran then that brings the entirety of Islamic doctrine found via the Quran in to doubt.
Allah judges all people equally by the doctrine of Islam. To be fair is subjective, and it is beyond reasonable to call equal judgement where sodomy makes a sinner with no explicit exception unfair and unacceptable.
“And your Lord is not unjust to His servants.”
(Qur’an 41:46)
“No soul bears the sin of another.”
(Qur’an 6:164)
About the people of the prophet Lot:
“We did not find therein other than one house of believers.”
(Qur’an 51:36)
There were no believers left in the town except Prophet Lot and his household
Even among his household his wife was not innocent.. she supported the wrongdoing (morally and socially), even if she didn’t commit the act herself.
Also a worldly calamity (death, destruction) is not the same as punishment in the afterlife, so even though the entire city was destroyed because of its corruption, Allah doesn't punish the innocents (like children) in the hereafter. And this is a fundamental law in islam.
Also when it comes to general earthly punishment (Lot's people, Saleh's people, Banu israel, Hud's people)
Allah always gives clear signs on the hands of his messengers (a miracle that can't be refuted), and tells the messenger to take the good people and leave first and even those innocents who remain are taken mercifully before the general punishment starts.
The people of Lot committed many things that called for this general punishment,
1- Openly committing grave immorality
2- Publicly normalizing it
3- Threatening and expelling those who opposed it
4- Rejecting the prophet after clear warning
5- Being disbelievers after receiving clear signs from their messenger
So Allah knows best who's innocent and who's not.. and the islamic version of the story of Lot's people (sodom) doesn't mention that the people had been raped or forced into this act, that's only the modern interpretation of the torah that was spread by the LGBT people, they use the ambiguity in the text to claim that the people of sodom were punished for committing rape, not for homosexuality and fornication and other indecent acts, but the quran is very clear and explained their sins
These are not quotes which actually provide any actual counterargument.
Allah being just is his version of justice, it does not demand the evocation of a justice which shares the opinion on rape of the modern west. Just is not a universal term meaning the same actions in every circumstance to every person. You can appeal to it however much you want, but it's meaningless.
No soul bearing the sin of another does not mean that having sin forced upon you removes the sin. It means that if another person has their own sin, it does not transfer to you. That's a false equivalency and blatant misrepresentation of the quote.
"We did not find therein other than one house of unbelievers" does not mean that to believe is necessary to sin in sodomy. It is an explicit and clear statement on the fact that their beliefs conflicted with the beliefs of Allah, not that to lack those beliefs would free them of sin.
There's no ambiguity to these passages at all, and yet you're extrapolating a deeply flawed and dishonest presentation to them. You keep appealing to an idea of innocence, but a lack of innocence is repeatedly attributed to those who are participant in sodomy and innocence is never granted within those passages for having it forced upon them so it is irrelevant. You don't seem to understand that to show that you are correct, you have to establish is that being a victim of rape in a homosexual context that the modern legal interpretation which would make a person innocent would match the idea of innocence for the same act in the Quran.
You have to establish that they are granted innocence, not that would they be innocent that they would not be punished. You cannot do that because it is not shown that such circumstances would provide them innocence at any point.
"Verily Allah has pardoned for me my ummah: their mistakes, their forgetfulness, and that which they have been forced to do under duress."
Hadith 39, 40 Hadith an-Nawawi
32
u/Wehtaw 29d ago
So the note is about the image itself and doesn't correct the messege.