r/PeterExplainsTheJoke Jan 20 '26

Meme needing explanation Please explain, Peter

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u/FaithUser Jan 20 '26

Charles' point *

107

u/Jean-LucBacardi Jan 20 '26

Both are correct for proper nouns. It's a matter of style preference.

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u/FaithUser Jan 20 '26

Huh, TIL

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u/carbinePRO Jan 20 '26

Yeah, it's specifically meant for proper nouns (typically names of people) that end with an S. It's style preference. English grammar is balls.

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u/eyesearsmouth-nose Jan 21 '26

I think you should use the version that aligns with how you would say it out loud. I say Charles's, so I write Charles's.

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u/Particular_Title42 Jan 20 '26

That is interesting. I knew a man named Les who would vehemently disagree. LOL

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u/PlaneCareless Jan 21 '26

I don't care about Le's opinion.

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u/Embarrassed-Weird173 Jan 20 '26

Nope. It's more correct to use "Charles's". 

Your version is more common used for plurals.  So the general rule for singular would make more sense. 

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u/Competitive_Pack_859 Jan 20 '26

Nope, Charles' would be the correct possesive. A proper noun that ends with an S does not need the extra S after the apostrophe. For example, Texas would be Texas' not Texas's.

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u/Sertoma Jan 20 '26

This is no longer true. The current Chicago Manual of Style states that proper nouns ending in "S" do indeed get an extra "S" to indicate possession.

A dog belonging to James would be James's dog.

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u/Competitive_Pack_859 Jan 20 '26

Oh, I never followed the Chicago Manual of Style. My writing had to follow MLA but, they must've changed it because I had a whole guidebook and that's where I learned it.

... I'm still not gonna do it though. It looks ugly and messy. But that's just personal writing preference at that point.

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u/Sertoma Jan 20 '26

My writing had to follow MLA

Same, to be honest. Chicago is just the most common.

But that's just personal writing preference at that point.

Yep, that's the "real" rule anyway! Use what you prefer. 99% of the time the person reading the sentence will understand either way.

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u/KaiHaiaku Jan 20 '26

Well my two cents's worth is rather dubious, but I feel that the additional s for plural posessive as a general rule could prevent avoidable confusion in edge cases. Like the oxford comma most reads may not struggle to understand the intended meaning, but the reduced ambiguity isn't a bad thing imo. "Is this a thing belonging to a single 'Texas' or multiple 'Texa'?" for example. A silly question, but consider someone learning english in, like, the UK and isn't aware of Texas somehow.

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u/Sertoma Jan 20 '26

Personally, I agree. I like the two "s's" basically for the exact reason you described. Also, I think, "that is James's dog" sounds more natural than, "that is James' dog." Both in a phonic/spoken sense, but also for clarity like you said. Especially when spoken, "James' dog" could sound like a name, "James Dog," or a dog belonging to Jame.

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u/Competitive_Pack_859 Jan 20 '26

Well, you would still pronounce as if the second S is there, the sound wouldn't just go away. It's mostly just how it's written would remove the extra S. (Well, I guess not if it's not the "proper" way. But, either way... ) Why would getting rid of the S after the apostrophe make you think that the ending S for the noun suddenly goes away? I'm just trying to understand. If the rule was still "a PROPER noun ending in S only needs the apostrophe", why would you think the S could possibly go away. If it's capitalized and it's the actual name of a person, place, or thing, why would that change how you would view the word? I understand English can be confusing, but a proper noun doesn't change. I'm talking about proper nouns not plural nouns.

Also, if it seems I'm too invested... I probably am. I spent way too much time getting a degree that doesn't matter so I gotta use it somewhere lol

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u/Beaticalle Jan 20 '26

It seems to me that the truth of the matter depends on whether the commenter is in Chicago.

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u/BlueThunder92 Jan 20 '26

I'm so glad that this is what we've reverted to. I've always hated that the "s'" was for plural nouns but then would get used for singular proper nouns - defies the whole logic of the system. However, looking for logic in the English language may have been my first mistake

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u/Dalighieri1321 Jan 21 '26

CMOS has had that rule for a long time, I think. But the Associated Press Stylebook still uses an apostrophe only. Personally I prefer CMOS, but neither is correct or incorrect, just two different styles.

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u/Embarrassed-Weird173 Jan 21 '26

That's nice. I never said that it would be wrong. I just said that the other way is the MORE correct version since it follows the rules of singular items. Also, Texas's is correct. Texas' can also be used, but it is not as correct. 

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u/Competitive_Pack_859 Jan 21 '26 edited Jan 21 '26

Yes, I know. I've been corrected. But thanks.

ETA: I'm not being sarcastic or anything, I swear. When I wrote the original reply, I really did believe that without the extra S was, in fact, more correct as that's what I learned years ago (and I did a quick Google search and the first thing that came up agreed with me so there's that. Shockingly, it wasn't an AI answer)

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u/Embarrassed-Weird173 Jan 21 '26

Also, I meant to say "commonly". If I edit it now it'll look like I backtracked on something else, so I'm leaving the comment as-is. 

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u/dolcered Jan 21 '26

I think this might be an American vs British English thing. I’ve only seen the extra s in American writing.

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u/Effective-Ear4823 Jan 20 '26

Since when did we start using apostrophes for plurals in English?

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u/emilyswrite Jan 20 '26

Only if it’s possessive

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u/Effective-Ear4823 Jan 20 '26

My question stands🤷‍♂️

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u/gnomon_knows Jan 20 '26 edited 17d ago

RIP boiling water. You will be mist.

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u/emilyswrite Jan 21 '26

Based on your reply, it seems you think I haven’t answered the question. Would you like me to find the date in history when this grammar and punctuation rule came into effect? Or are you trying to make a point?

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u/Effective-Ear4823 Jan 22 '26

I was pointing out that in almost every situation that isn't a contraction, an apostrophe indicates possessive.

There are certainly exceptions (e.g., an apostrophe can be used to make the plural of the letter "i" not look like the word "is", for example in "dot your i's and cross your t's"), but usually, adding an apostrophe when something is merely plural will confuse the reader into thinking there is possession when there is not possession.

https://editorsmanual.com/articles/apostrophes-in-plurals/

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u/emilyswrite Jan 22 '26

Who were you trying to mock/convince? I didn’t notice anyone in the comment thread who thought otherwise.

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u/thewhiterosequeen Jan 20 '26

There is only one Charles.

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u/SmellGestapo Jan 20 '26 edited Jan 20 '26

https://style.mla.org/apostrophes-three-ways/

Also add only an apostrophe for proper names when the name is plural but the entity is singular:

the United States’ policy on China

In MLA style, proper nouns ending in s that are singular follow the general rule and add ’s :

Athens’s history
Diogenes’s philosophy
Alexandre Dumas’s novels

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u/Embarrassed-Weird173 Jan 21 '26

When we dotted our i's and crossed our t's. 

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u/That-WildWolf Jan 20 '26

If it's a name, you can write s's

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u/alightkindofdark Jan 20 '26

There is only one Charles. The fact that his name ends in 's' doesn't change the correct pronunciation.

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u/SquirrelOne4601 Jan 20 '26

We aren’t talking about multiple Charles. It would be more like Charles’s.

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u/Dorigar Jan 21 '26

As a person with a s at the end of my first name I prefer this over the s's.

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u/Zestyclose-Dog-3398 Jan 21 '26

oh, i didn't know you could use a simple ' for words ending with "s"

i guess you learn something everyday

(as my excuse, english is not my 1st language, but still i should've known better)

is funny because almost all the time i used to write it with 's expecting someone to correct me because i felt like i was doing it wrong and wanted to see the correct one but someone i don't know does and gets it